Original SIn?

Few doctrines can send a person into an atheist scented explosion of hurt feelings and (not unjust) anti-religious sentiment like Original Sin.  And to be honest, even as a Christian I cant say I blame them.  It seems to violate the principle that people can be responsible only for acts done by themselves or with consent.  Often the Bible itself records expressions of outrage.  A particularly funny version is "The fathers have eaten sour grapes, and the children's teeth stand on edge." (Jer. 31:29; Ezk. 18:2)  Ever since Augustine's famous interpretation of Romans 5:12, Adam and Eve became history's worst case of douchebaggery on record, like that coworker of yours who steals the one clearly labeled and off-limit lunch in the fridge, only in this case the guy doesn't just burgle a delicious pastrami-and-havarti-with-deli-mustard-and-pickle sandwich, but also damns all of mankind.  Its sort of like finding out that some relative of yours had the misfortune to acquire a debt just the right amount of time after writing had been invented so that both dice and bookies could exist, and then ten thousand years later some jerk with a ridiculously huge abacus (that can somehow calculate egregious amounts of compound interest) comes to you to collect while you, unsuspecting, are rummaging in the fridge for that lost, oh so delicious sandwich of yours.

But I digress.

But what if original sin in some sense stands on a mistranslation?  One of the fascinating differences between Eastern and Western Christianity circles precisely around two different interpretations of Romans 5:12.  The passage reads: "As sin came into the world through one man, and through sin, death, so death spreads to all men because all men have sinned."  In this passage the major issue of translation for Augustine came down to the final part, which was translated into Latin as in quo omnes peccaverunt or "in whom [i.e. in Adam] all men have sinned."  Yet this stands in a somewhat remarkable contrast to the Greek e˙f∆ wˆ— pa¿nteß h¢marton, which cannot really bear that meaning.  At all.  e˙f∆ w can simply mean "because," so the end of the verse would read "because all men sin," making the concept of original sin moot because everyone is guilty not due to Adam (and Eve) but because everyone, in fact, are themselves sinners.  However, the Eastern Orthodox take a slightly different interpretation.  The e˙f∆ w itself can be a "neuter," pronoun--in which case we could translate it as just "because."

However it is possible (and the majority of Patristic theology stands behind this) to interpret the wˆ— as masculine, in which case it refers to the directly antecedent substantive qa¿natoß (death).  The translation that most Patristic theologians took, and which is the almost exclusive path taken by Eastern Orthodoxy today, thus renders the passage: "As sin came into the world through one man and death through sin, so death spread to all men; and because of death, all men have sinned."  Thus "Mortality or corruption or simply death (understood in a personalized sense), has indeed been viewed, since Christian antiquity, as a cosmic disease which holds humanity under its sway, both spiritually and physically."  (Meyendorff, Byzantine Theology 144f).  Which doesnt let Adam and Eve off the hook for our predicament.  But what we "inherit," from them is not guilt, but a corruption.  Still hard to swallow for those generally inclined to not believe a Christian orientation of things anyway, but the difference is actually quite palpable.  We sin not because we are already guilty creatures, but because of the angst of our mortality.  Material goods like food and drink and other needs become, not merely items of communion amongst one another, but necessary and scarce resources needing aggregation to individuals for personal survival.  Mortality is thus the driving source of conflict.  That is to say, we might not be guilty in Adam (whatever that might mean) but the general human condition of finitude and death is itself a palpable drive toward malificence.

To me this has always made much more sense than the "forensic," sense of imputed guilt.  It manifestly plays on the concept of ontology and so clearly produces the picture that sin is not just an arbitrary decision on God's part.  Since God is the Creator and Sustainer, any break from Him is also a movement toward non-being, a movement toward attempting to secure onesself (but knowing one will ultimately fail).  Hence mortality becomes the driving force to apprehend finite resources for ones self and ones kin as opposed to the general "other."

Whereas the imputation in terms of guilt seems wholly arbitrary (even if legal terms are often used in the Bible) the ontological sense of anxiety and the desperate quest for survival links up quite "naturally," (pun intended) to the world as we know it.

Comments

James Tucker said…
Great post, Peterson. I've also seen the Eastern understanding best manifested in Early Jewish literature and interpretation. I am thinking particularly of Wisdom of Solomon—which when removed from the forensic framework casts a greater need for sanctification (not defined in tradition Protestant terms, but in more of a sense of "truly living"). It also grants greater significance to the life of Christ—as evident in the mid rash of Hebrews—and even the book of James.
Thanks for this Derrick. I have a question, if indeed Paul is saying that Adam brought a corruption that causes people in their own persons to sin, and thereby everyone dies, what is then the corporate nature of verse 18, "one man's trespass led to condemnation for all people?" Do they die for their own sin v. 12 or Adam's v. 18?

I don't have an answer here and I agree with you in terms of "eph' ho."
Derrick said…
Thanks for the comments and observations guys! To answer your question Matt, or attempt to, I think that EO would affirm the corporate nature of v. 18, only they would read "condemnation," as equivalent to "death," i.e. being cut off from God. Thus we all die both for Adam (and Eve's) sin in the sense that our mortality is a result of their actions (hence there is a sense of corporate condemnation); but our sin to the extent that it is counted as "guilt," for EO is always personal. So I dont think EO is asking us to decide "communal" vs "individual" because it is a dialectic. Adam sinned and brought death/mortality, which reigned and spread (so their translation in 5:12 that death spread, and because of death everyone sinned) thus causing more sin in each individual.

I think the real contrast with the west (at least the more deficient parts of western theology) is not the difference between an individual vs a corporate account of our identity with Adam's sin. I think both East and West fully affirm in their own way that it is both (and work it out accordingly). Rather I think it has to do with how "sin" itself is interpreted. Whereas I think the west often takes its "legal" terminology quite literally, the East, while not obviously wanting to discard legal imagery of justification etc... because its totally biblical, want to interpret it in light of the idea that God is the ground of our life, and through the concept of "deification." So for the East "justification," could never simply be God's fiat of declaring us righteous, rather that declaration for them is itself an indication that we are being transformed into participants in God's nature like Peter says, since any "verdict" of "good" or "just" or "righteous" etc... can have no other standard than God Himself.
Derrick said…
I forgot to add the parallel: since I think EO would take "condemnation" as equivalent to "death," the antithesis of Christ's justification would be justification = life. Thus this seems slightly different than the traditional Protestant understanding of justification as a legal declaration. But it is not opposed to it, merely it wants to re-situate the legal terminology in more ontological terms regarding God as Creator and Sustainer of creation.

The same sort of parallel can be seen in v. 19. "Just as by the disobedience of one, the many were made sinners, so by one mans obedience the many will be made righteous." In the more standard Western terms the many who are "made sinners" are here receiving imputed guilt in Adam. The EO would rather say the many were "made sinners" is glossed by their previous interpretation of 5:12, the many were made sinners by Adam's transgression because death now reigns and causes each of us to sin, not necessarily that we are "legally" guilty in Adam. Again the contrast with the west is not really corporate vs individual, but the idea of incorporating the legal terms more into the scope of ontology and deification and communion with God as the "model" of salvation which incorporates all other "models" into it (satisfaction, penal substitution, moral influence, christus victor, etc...)
Cal said…
I'm very late on this conversation but can't it be both/and in the sense that we did inherit Adam's Guilt and Adam's Death? Since man is numbered with Adam and was banished from the Tree of Life, our death is our guilt manifest? But the legal proceeding that comes from Christ Jesus being resurrected is 'Vindicated' or 'Righteous' and so while all men die, those who are in Christ find themselves vindicated in the resurrection and those in Adam find themselves damned (another legal term) by this love and fall into the 'Second Death'.

I do appreciate the retained emphasis on Death in the EO that is written about specifically about by Athanasius. I think we end up right where Scripture started when taking the full breadth of this and Augustine's thoughts.